Romelu Lukaku: Napoli’s Belgian striker linked with shock New York City move

Romelu Lukaku, the Belgium international centre-forward currently at Napoli, is being linked with a move to MLS side New York City in what would be one of the highest-profile striker switches of the upcoming window.

The 33-year-old, whose contract with the Serie A champions runs until 30 June 2027, is understood to be under consideration as New York City look to add a proven goalscorer with top-level European experience. Lukaku’s current market valuation stands at around €6m, a figure that would represent a relatively modest outlay for an MLS club seeking a marquee name.

Lukaku joined Napoli from Chelsea in August 2024 in a deal worth just over €30m and went on to help the club win the Italian title in 2024-25, adding another Serie A winners’ medal to the one he claimed with Inter Milan in 2020-21. He also lifted the Italian Super Cup with Napoli in 2025-26, reinforcing his status as a forward with a track record of contributing to trophy-winning sides.

The former Anderlecht forward has been one of Europe’s most consistent scorers over the past decade, with 121 Premier League goals and 85 in Serie A across his career. On the international stage, he remains a key figure for Belgium, scoring three goals and providing one assist at the 2026 World Cup.

Any potential deal would require Napoli to sanction a departure a year before the final season of his contract, leaving the Italian club in a strong negotiating position as New York City explore whether a move is feasible.